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QUESTION NO:1

Which two commands are required to enable multicast on a router, knowing that the receivers only

support IGMPv2? (Choose two.)

A. ip pim rp-address

B. ip pim ssm

C. ip pim sparse-mode

D. ip pim passive

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

Sparse mode logic (pull mode) is the opposite of Dense mode logic (push mode), in Dense mode

it is supposed that in every network there is someone who is requesting the multicast traffic so

PIM-DM routers begin by flooding the multicast traffic out of all their interfaces except those from

where a prune message is received to eliminate the

QUESTION NO:2

A branch router is configured with an egress QoS policy that was designed for a total number of

10 concurrent VOIP calls.

Due to expansion, 15 VOIP calls are now running over the link, but after the 14th call was

established, all calls were affected and the voice quality was dramatically degraded.

Assuming that there is enough bandwidth on the link for all of this traffic, which part of the QoS

configuration should be updated due to the new traffic profile?

A. Increase the shaping rate for the priority queue. B.

Remove the policer applied on the priority queue. C.

Remove the shaper applied on the priority queue. D.

Increase the policing rate for the priority queue.

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:9

Which two are effects of connecting a network segment that is running 802.1D to a network

segment that is running 802.1w? (Choose two.)

A. The entire network switches to 802.1D and generates BPDUs to determine root bridge status. B.

A migration delay of three seconds occurs when the port that is connected to the 802.1D bridge

comes up.

C. The entire network reconverges and a unique root bridge for the 802.1D segment, and a root

bridge for the 802.1w segment, is chosen.

D. The first hop 802.1w switch that is connected to the 802.1D runs entirely in 802.1D compatibility

mode and converts the BPDUs to either 802.1D or 802.1w BPDUs to the 802.1D or 802.1w

segments of the network.

E. Classic 802.1D timers, such as forward delay and max-age, will only be used as a backup, and

will not be necessary if point-to-point links and edge ports are properly identified and set by the

administrator.

Answer: B,E

Explanation:

Each port maintains a variable that defines the protocol to run on the corresponding segment. A

migration delay timer of three seconds also starts when the port comes up. When this timer runs,

the current STP or RSTP mode associated to the port is locked. As soon as the migration delay

expires, the port adapts to the mode that corresponds to the next BPDU it receives. If the port

changes its mode of operation as a result of a BPDU received, the migration delay restarts.

802.1D works by the concept that the protocol had to wait for the network to converge before it

transitioned a port into the forwarding state. With Rapid Spanning Tree it does not have to rely on

any timers, the only variables that that it relies on is edge ports and link types.

Any uplink port that has an alternate port to the root can be directly placed into the forwarding

state (This is the Rapid convergence that you speak of “restored quickly when RSTP is already in

use?”). This is what happened when you disconnected the primary look; the port that was ALT,

moved to FWD immediately, but the switch also still needs to create a BDU with the TC bit set to

notify the rest of the network that a topology has occurred and all non-edge designated ports will

transition to BLK, LRN, and then FWD to ensure there are no loops in the rest of the network. This

is why if you have a host on a switchport, and you know for a fact that it is only one host, enable

portfast to configure the port as an edgeport so that it does not have to transition to all the STP

states.

Reference

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml

QUESTION NO:10

Which command is used to enable EtherChannel hashing for Layer 3 IP and Layer 4 port-based

CEF?

A. mpls ip cef

B. port-channel ip cef

C. mpls ip port-channel cef

D. port-channel load balance

E. mpls ip load-balance

F. ip cef EtherChannel channel-id XOR L4

G. ip cef connection exchange

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:22

Refer to the exhibit.

Which path is selected as best path?

A. path 1, because it is learned from IGP B.

path 1, because the metric is the lowest C.

path 2, because it is external

D. path 2, because it has the higher router ID

Answer: B

Explanation:

400-101 Study Guide400-101 Exam Questions400-101 Braindumps

QUESTION NO:24

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 is not learning about the 172.16.10.0 subnet from the BGP neighbor R2 (209.165.202.130).

What can be done so that R1 will learn about this network?

A. Disable auto-summary on R2.

B. Configure an explicit network command for the 172.16.10.0 subnet on R2.

C. Subnet information cannot be passed between IBGP peers.

D. Disable auto-summary on R1.

Answer: B

Explanation:

By default, BGP does not accept subnets redistributed from IGP. To advertise and carry subnet

routes in BGP, use an explicit network command or the no auto-summary command. If you disable

auto-summarization and have not entered a network command, you will not advertise network

routes for networks with subnet routes unless they contain a summary route.

Reference

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/11_3/np1/command/reference/1rbgp.html

QUESTION NO:29

What is the first thing that happens when IPv6 is enabled on an interface on a host?

A. A router solicitation is sent on that interface.

B. There is a duplicate address detection on the host interface.

C. The link local address is assigned on the host interface.

D. A neighbor redirect message is sent on the host interface.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Duplicate address detection (DAD) is used to verify that an IPv6 home address is unique on the

LAN before assigning the address to a physical interface (for example, QDIO). z/OS

Communications Server responds to other nodes doing DAD for IP addresses assigned to the

interface.

Reference

http://publib.boulder.ibm.com/infocenter/zos/v1r12/index.jsp?topic=/com.ibm.zos.r12.hale001

/ipv6d0021002145.htm

QUESTION NO:33

Which two OSPF LSA types are new in OSPF version 3? (Choose two.)

A. Link

B. NSSA external

C. Network link

D. Intra-area prefix

E. AS domain

Answer: A,D

Explanation:

New LSA Types

OSPFv3 carries over the seven basic LSA types we’re familiar with from OSPFv2. However, the

type 1 and 2 LSAs have been re-purposed, as will be discussed in a bit. OSPFv3 also introduces

two new LSA types: Link and Intra-area Prefix.

Reference

http://packetlife.net/blog/2010/mar/2/ospfv2-versus-ospfv3/

QUESTION NO:36

For which routes does LDP advertise a label binding?

A. all routes in the routing table

B. only the IGP and BGP routes in the routing table

C. only the BGP routes in the routing table

D. only the IGP routes in the routing table

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO:37

Which command can be used on a PE router to connect to a CE router (11.1.1.4) in VRF red?

A. telnet 11.1.1.4 /vrf-source red

B. telnet 11.1.1.4 source /vrf red

C. telnet 11.1.1.4 /source vrf red

D. telnet 11.1.1.4 /vrf red

E. telnet 11.1.1.4 vrf red

Answer: D

Explanation:

Telnetting can be done through the VRF using the Management Ethernet interface. In the

following example, the router telnets to 172.17.1.1 through the Management Ethernet interface

VRF:

Router# telnet 172.17.1.1 /vrf Mgmt-intf

Reference

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/routers/asr1000/configuration/guide/chassis/Management_Ether

net.html

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