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Which two are effects of connecting a network segment that is running 802.1D to a network
segment that is running 802.1w? (Choose two.)
A. The entire network switches to 802.1D and generates BPDUs to determine root bridge status. B.
A migration delay of three seconds occurs when the port that is connected to the 802.1D bridge
C. The entire network reconverges and a unique root bridge for the 802.1D segment, and a root
bridge for the 802.1w segment, is chosen.
D. The first hop 802.1w switch that is connected to the 802.1D runs entirely in 802.1D compatibility
mode and converts the BPDUs to either 802.1D or 802.1w BPDUs to the 802.1D or 802.1w
segments of the network.
E. Classic 802.1D timers, such as forward delay and max-age, will only be used as a backup, and
will not be necessary if point-to-point links and edge ports are properly identified and set by the
Each port maintains a variable that defines the protocol to run on the corresponding segment. A
migration delay timer of three seconds also starts when the port comes up. When this timer runs,
the current STP or RSTP mode associated to the port is locked. As soon as the migration delay
expires, the port adapts to the mode that corresponds to the next BPDU it receives. If the port
changes its mode of operation as a result of a BPDU received, the migration delay restarts.
802.1D works by the concept that the protocol had to wait for the network to converge before it
transitioned a port into the forwarding state. With Rapid Spanning Tree it does not have to rely on
any timers, the only variables that that it relies on is edge ports and link types.
Any uplink port that has an alternate port to the root can be directly placed into the forwarding
state (This is the Rapid convergence that you speak of “restored quickly when RSTP is already in
use?”). This is what happened when you disconnected the primary look; the port that was ALT,
moved to FWD immediately, but the switch also still needs to create a BDU with the TC bit set to
notify the rest of the network that a topology has occurred and all non-edge designated ports will
transition to BLK, LRN, and then FWD to ensure there are no loops in the rest of the network. This
is why if you have a host on a switchport, and you know for a fact that it is only one host, enable
portfast to configure the port as an edgeport so that it does not have to transition to all the STP
Which two statements are true about traffic shaping? (Choose two.)
A. Out-of-profile packets are queued.
B. It causes TCP retransmits.
C. Marking/remarking is not supported.
D. It does not respond to BECN and ForeSight Messages.
E. It uses a single/two-bucket mechanism for metering.
Which three options are features of VTP version 3? (Choose three.)
A. VTPv3 supports 8K VLANs.
B. VTPv3 supports private VLAN mapping.
C. VTPv3 allows for domain discovery.
D. VTPv3 uses a primary server concept to avoid configuration revision issues.
E. VTPv3 is not compatible with VTPv1 or VTPv2.
F. VTPv3 has a hidden password option.
Key Benefits of VTP Version 3
Much work has gone into improving the usability of VTP version 3 in three major areas:
The new version of VTP offers better administrative control over which device is allowed to update
other devices\’ view of the VLAN topology. The chance of unintended and disruptive changes is
significantly reduced, and availability is increased. The reduced risk of unintended changes will
ease the change process and help speed deployment.
Functionality for the VLAN environment has been significantly expanded. Two enhancements are
most beneficial for today\’s networks:
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the potential issue with this configuration?
A. There is no potential issue; OSPF will work fine in any condition.
B. Sub-optimal routing may occur since there is no area 1 adjacency between the ABRs.
C. This is a wrong OSPF configuration because all routers must be in area 0 only.
D. This is a wrong OSPF configuration because /30 requires 0.0.0.3 wild card.
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet from RTD with destination RTG, is reaching RTB. What is the path this packet will take
from RTB to reach RTG?
A. RTB – RTA – RTG
B. RTB – RTD – RTC – RTA – RTG
C. RTB – RTF – RTE – RTA – RTG
D. RTB will not be able to reach RTG since the OSPF configuration is wrong.
What action will a BGP route reflector take when it receives a prefix marked with the community
attribute NO ADVERTISE from a client peer?
A. It will advertise the prefix to all other client peers and non-client peers.
B. It will not advertise the prefix to EBGP peers.
C. It will only advertise the prefix to all other IBGP peers.
D. It will not advertise the prefix to any peers.
Refer to the exhibit.
After a link flap in the network, which two EIGRP neighbors will not be queried for alternative
paths? (Choose two.)
Both 192.168.3.7 and 192.168.3.8 are in an EIGRP Stub area
The Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) Stub Routing feature improves network
stability, reduces resource utilization, and simplifies stub router configuration.
Stub routing is commonly used in a hub and spoke network topology. In a hub and spoke network,
one or more end (stub) networks are connected to a remote router (the spoke) that is connected to
one or more distribution routers (the hub). The remote router is adjacent only to one or more
distribution routers. The only route for IP traffic to follow into the remote router is through a
distribution router. This type of configuration is commonly used in WAN topologies where the
distribution router is directly connected to a WAN. The distribution router can be connected to
many more remote routers. Often, the distribution router will be connected to 100 or more remote
routers. In a hub and spoke topology, the remote router must forward all nonlocal traffic to a
distribution router, so it becomes unnecessary for the remote router to hold a complete routing
table. Generally, the distribution router need not send anything more than a default route to the
When using the EIGRP Stub Routing feature, you need to configure the distribution and remote
routers to use EIGRP, and to configure only the remote router as a stub. Only specified routes are
propagated from the remote (stub) router. The router responds to queries for summaries,
connected routes, redistributed static routes, external routes, and internal routes with the message
“inaccessible.” A router that is configured as a stub will send a special peer information packet to
all neighboring routers to report its status as a stub router. Any neighbor that receives a packet
informing it of the stub status will not query the stub router for any routes, and a router that has a
stub peer will not query that peer. The stub router will depend on the distribution router to send the
proper updates to all peers.
What is the first thing that happens when IPv6 is enabled on an interface on a host?
A. A router solicitation is sent on that interface.
B. There is a duplicate address detection on the host interface.
C. The link local address is assigned on the host interface.
D. A neighbor redirect message is sent on the host interface.
Duplicate address detection (DAD) is used to verify that an IPv6 home address is unique on the
LAN before assigning the address to a physical interface (for example, QDIO). z/OS
Communications Server responds to other nodes doing DAD for IP addresses assigned to the
How will EIGRPv6 react if there is an IPv6 subnet mask mismatch between the Global Unicast
addresses on a point-to-point link?
A. EIGRPv6 will form a neighbor relationship.
B. EIGRPv6 will not form a neighbor relationship.
C. EIGRPv6 will form a neighbor relationship, but with the log MSG: “EIGRPv6 neighbor not on a
D. EIGRPv6 will form a neighbor relationship, but routes learned from that neighbor will not be
installed in the routing table.
Answer: A Explanation:
In order to maintain security, with which hop count are IPv6 neighbor discovery packets sent?
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