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QUESTION NO: 1
On the MSTP network as shown in the figure, what is the role of the switch in MSTI 1 according to the
configuration?
A. Root switch
B. Slave switch
C. Non-root switch
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
As shown in the figure, which switch is the root switch according to the configuration?
A. SWA
B. SWB
C. SWC
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
If an MSTP switch detects that the neighboring switch works in RSTP mode, which mode does the MSTP
switch work?
A. STP mode
B. RSTP mode
C. MSTP mode
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Which problems on a single spanning tree network can be solved by MSTP? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Traffic forwarding paths in some VLANs are faulty.
B. Traffic cannot be load balanced.
C. The second best path problem may occur.
D. The network reliability cannot be improved.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 5
According to the figure, what is the status of Ethernet1/0/13 in MSTI 1?
A. Forwarding
B. Discarding
C. Learning
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
In RSTP, which statements about the alternate port and backup port are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. The alternate port is a backup of the root port.
B. The backup port is a backup of the designated port.
C. The switch that the backup port belongs to is not the designated switch on the network segment
connected to the interface.
D. The switch that the alternate port belongs to is the designated switch on the network segment
connected to the interface.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 7
According to the MSTP protocol, each MST instance calculates an independent spanning tree by using the
RSTP algorithm.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
The following is the command output on a root switch of an MSTP region. How many switches are located
in the MSTP region?
A. Less than 10
B. Less than 20
C. Less than 30
D. Less than 40
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
On the RSTP network with STP devices, which packets does an RSTP switch use to notify the STP
switches of the topology change?
A. RSTP BPDUs with the TC flag
B. STP BPDUs with the TCN flag
C. RSTP BPDUs with the TCA flag
D. STP BPDUs with the TCA flag
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
What are the same fields in RSTP BPDUs and STP BPDUs? (Select 2 Answers)
A. TCN
B. TC
C. TCA
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 11
On the RSTP network as shown in the figure, what RSTP operations will occur after the E1 port of SWB
fails? (Select 3 Answers)
A. SWB deletes the MAC address entries with the E1 port as the destination interface.
B. The spanning tree is recalculated and the E2 port is elected as the new root port.
C. All the interfaces in forwarding state send topology change notifications (TCNs) to notify other switches
of the topology change.
D. All the non-edge ports in forwarding state send TCNs to notify other switches of the topology change.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 12
Which is the port state defined in RSTP?
A. Discarding
B. Learning
C. Forwarding
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
RSTP has all functions that STP has and it is backward compatible with STP.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
RSTP adopts fast convergence mechanism. So, there is no Forward Delay interval in RSTP.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Two switches are directly connected to each other and they are working in full duplex mode. By default,
RSTP will consider the link between the switches as point-to-point link.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
In RSTP network environment, a port can be set as edge port when it is directly connected with terminal.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements about RSTP and STP is true?
A. STP has more port states than RSTP.
B. The port roles used in RSTP is less than the port roles used in STP.
C. Since RSTP adopts fast convergence mechanism, it does not have Learning state which is available in
STP.
D. Same as STP, the ports will enter into Listening state once the RSTP has been enabled. Then, the
ports can receive BPDU and calculate the spanning tree.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
In a switching network that runs RSTP, the topology change notification message will not be sent when the
switch detects that the Alternate Port is failed.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
When the topology of a network running RSTP changes, what happens after the change?
A. Flooding on the entire network.
B. The aging time of MAC address entries is changed.
C. Some MAC address entries are deleted.
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which ports defined by RSTP cannot work in Forwarding state? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Root Port
B. Designated Port
C. Backup Port
D. Alternate Port
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 21
On an RSTP network, when an edge port is in protected state, what operation is performed after the edge
port receives BPDUs?
A. The edge port forwards BPDUs.
B. The edge port discards BPDUs.
C. The edge port is shut down.
D. The edge port obtains required information from BPDUs.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
In RSTP, the port status can be discarding and learning. Which statements about the port status are true?
(Select 2 Answers)
A. The port in discarding or learning state does not forward data frames.
B. The port in discarding state does not learn MAC addresses.
C. The port in learning state does not learn MAC addresses.
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 23
On the RSTP network as shown in the figure, what is the port role of SWC E0/1 according to the
configuration? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Designated port
B. Root port
C. Alternate port
D. Edge port
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 24
As shown in the figure, when the link between SWC and LAND is faulty, through which path are TCA
BPDUs sent?
A. From SWA to SWB
B. From SWB to SWC
C. From SWB to SWA
D. From SWC to SWB
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
As shown in the figure, when the STP network runs properly, which device does the designated port of
LANC reside?
A. SWA
B. SWB
C. SWC
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
In STP configuration, which statement about BPDUs is true?
A. BPDUs cannot be sent from the designated port.
B. BPDUs can be sent only from the designated port.
C. BPDUs can be sent from any port.
D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
On an STP network, after the network topology changes, which BPDUs are sent during flooding of
topology change information on the entire network?
A. BPDUs with the TCN flag
B. BPDUs with the TCA flag
C. BPDUs with the TC flag
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
After an STP switch starts, it considers itself as the root switch. Which statements about BDPU parameter
setting are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The switch is the designated root.
B. The designated cost is 0.
C. The switch is the designated bridge.
D. The designated port is 0.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 29
On the STP network as shown in the figure, which device may be the blocked port belong to?
A. SWA
B. SWB
C. SWC
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
QinQ provides a simplified Layer 2 VPN tunnel.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Which statements about QinQ are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. QinQ saves VLANs on the public network.
B. To avoid VLAN conflict, the customer must negotiate with the service provider before modifying the
VLANs on its private network.
C. When the service provider upgrades the network, the configurations on the user network do not need to
be modified.
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 32
Some vendors set the TPID value in the outer VLAN tag of QinQ packets to the non-protocol value.
To be compatible with these vendors\’ devices, the TPID value on Huawei switches is adjustable.
Which is the default value of the TPID value on Huawei switches?
A. 0x9200
B. 0x9100
C. 0x8200
D. 0x8100
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Which types of interfaces can be configured with selective QinQ? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Access interface
B. Trunk interface
C. Hybrid interface
D. dot1q-tunnel interface
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 34
The STP protocol can prevent broadcast storms caused by loops on the Layer 2 network.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
The STP protocol cannot prevent MAC address table flapping caused by loops on the Layer 2 network.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
Which are the port roles defined in STP?
A. Root Port
B. Designated Port
C. Alternate Port
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
How many port states are defined by STP?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
Each STP switch has a unique switch ID. Which two entries does the switch ID contain?
A. Two-byte switch priority
B. Six-byte MAC address
C. Two-byte switch priority and six-byte MAC address
D. Six-byte switch priority and six-byte MAC address
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
On an STP network, before the interface status transits from non-forwarding to forwarding, how many
Forward Delay intervals does the interface wait for?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 40
If loop exists and STP is not enabled, the switch will not operate normally.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
Which of the following statements about STP Designated Port is true?
A. Each of the bridge can have one Designated Port only.
B. Designated Port is responsible for forwarding packets to its connected network segments.
C. The only path leading to the Root Bridge is through Designated Port.
D. Designated Port forwards the data packet from its corresponding switch to the Root Switch.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Which of the following statements about STP Designated Port is true?
A. Each of the bridge can have one Designated Port only.
B. Designated Port is responsible for forwarding packets to its connected network segments.
C. The only path leading to the Root Bridge is through Designated Port.
D. Designated Port forwards the data packet from its corresponding switch to the Root Switch.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
Which of the following statements is not the advantage of STP?
A. STP can manage the redundant links. When the working link is down, network connectivity can be
restored.
B. STP can prevent loops
C. STP can prevent broadcast storm
D. STP can save network bandwidth
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Which of the following standards defines STP?
A. 802.1J
B. 802.1X
C. 802.1D
D. 802.1P
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
STP elects ( )
A. One bridge as the Root Bridge and another one as the Backup Root Bridge
B. One bridge as the Root Bridge
C. Two bridges as the Root Bridge
D. One Designated Bridge
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
STP distributes configuration message by sending BPDU packet to each other.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
In STP, BPDU packet is carried by ( ).
A. IP packet
B. TCP packet
C. Ethernet frame
D. UDP packet
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
In a switching network that has been enabled with STP protocol, the priorities of all the switches are the
same. The MAC address of switch1 is 00-e0-fc-00-00-40, MAC address of switch2 is 00- e0-fc-00-00-10,
MAC address of switch3 is 00-e0-fc-00-00-20, and MAC address of switch4 is 00-e0-fc-00-00-80. Which of
the switches will be elected as the Root Bridge?
A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
A switching network has been enabled with STP protocol. To provide fast access speed to the file server
for most of the users, the switch that is directly connected with file server is configured as the root bridge.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
Which of the following statements about the link failure detection in STP protocol is not true?
A. When network topology is stable, the Designated Port sends BPDU packet at every Hello Time interval.
B. When network topology is stable, BPDU packets will be transmitted periodically.
C. When the port does not receive new BPDU within a certain interval, the old configuration BPDU will
time out and the link failure can be detected.
D. The port sends Configuration BPDU at every Hello Time interval. When the link fails, Configuration
BPDU cannot be sent out. As a result, this port can detect the link failure.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Which of the following statements about STP is not true?
A. STP can manage redundant links.
B. STP can block redundant links to eliminate loops
C. STP can prevent temporary loss of connectivity
D. STP can make LAN switch operate normally in a network with loops
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
According to OSI reference model, Layer 2 LAN switch operates at ( ).
A. Physical layer
B. Data link layer
C. IP layer
D. Application layer
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
According to the STP protocol, a certain field in the BPDU identifies the root switch. That is, if the BPDU
sent by a switch contains this field, this switch is considered as the root switch. What is this field?
A. Root Identifier
B. Root Path Cost
C. Bridge Identifier
D. Port Identifier
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
Which are the two parts in the port identifier of the uplink interface on a non-root switch?
A. 1-bit port priority and 1-bit port number
B. 1-bit port priority and 2-bit port number
C. 2-bit port priority and 1-bit port number
D. 2-bit port priority and 2-bit port number
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 55
In the network diagram, which switch will be selected as the root switch?
A. SWA
B. SWB
C. SWC
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
Which statements about the PVID on the access interface are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. When receiving a packet without the VLAN tag, the interface adds the VLAN tag to the packet and sets
the VID in the tag to the default VLAN ID.
B. When receiving a packet with a VLAN tag, the interface compares the VLAN ID in the tag with the
default VLAN ID. If they are the same, the interface forwards the packets; otherwise, the interface
discards the packets.
C. When the interface sends a packet with a VLAN tag that contains the default VLAN ID, the system
removes the VLAN tag of the packet, and then forwards the packet.
D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 57
Which statement about the hybrid interface is true?
A. A hybrid interface can only be connected to network device.
B. A hybrid interface can only be connected to host.
C. A hybrid interface can be connected to host or network device.
D. A hybrid interface cannot be configured with VLAN ID.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Which statement about MUX VLAN is false?
A. Principal VLAN
B. Subordinate VLAN
C. Subordinate group VLAN
D. Guest VLAN
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
Which statements about the MUX VLAN configuration are true? (Select 2 Answers)
[Quidway]vlan 10
[Quidway-vlan10]mux-vlan
[Quidway-vlan10]subordinate group 11
[Quidway-vlan10]subordinate separate 12
A. VLAN 10 is the principal VLAN
B. VLAN 11 is the principal VLAN
C. VLAN 12 is the subordinate separate VLAN
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 60
When configuring VLAN mapping, you must set the priority of outer VLAN ID.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
The port isolation function can isolate the ports on the same switch.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
Which statements are false?
A. The VLAN mapping function is usually configured on the edge node of a public network.
B. The VLAN mapping function can save VLAN resources on a public network.
C. VLAN mapping allows private networks on different VLANs to communicate with each other over the
ISP network.
D. VLAN mapping allows only the private networks on the same VLAN to communicate with each other.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 63
Which statements about VLAN are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The VLAN improves network security. Users on different VLANs cannot communicate with each other.
B. The VLAN improves network processing efficiency. Users on different VLANs are separated from each
other. Therefore, the size of a broadcast domain is reduced.
C. Layer 2 forwarding is only based on destination MAC addresses, and is irrelevant to VLAN
configuration.
D. The VLAN technology is a management method that controls the communication between terminals.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 64
Which statements about the VLAN on S series switches are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. The VLAN IDs on the switch range from 1 to 4090.
B. The switch has a default VLAN.
C. The priority value in the VLAN tag can be changed on the switch.
D. A VLAN tag contains one byte.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 65
If the customer requires high mobility and easy management, the staff of different departments can be
added to different VLANs. In addition, these VLANs are located on different IP subnets. Which VLAN
allocation mode can meet these requirements?
A. VLAN allocation based on source IP addresses
B. VLAN allocation based on destination IP addresses
C. VLAN allocation based on source IP addresses and source MAC addresses
D. VLAN allocation based on destination MAC addresses and destination IP addresses
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
Which statements about the access interface are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Only the VLAN whose ID is the same as the PVID of the access interface are allowed on the access
interface.
B. When receiving an untagged frame, the access interface adds its own PVID to the frame.
C. The access interface sends only untagged frames to the peer device.
D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 67
Which statement about the trunk interface is true?
A. A trunk interface is always connected to hosts.
B. “multiple” VLAN IDs can be set on a trunk interface. The VLAN IDs can be the same as or different
from the PVID.
C. The trunk interface cannot have a PVID.
D. If the trunk interface receives a packet with a VLAN not in the allowed VLAN list, the trunk interface
broadcast the packet in the VLAN.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
Which statements about MUX VLAN are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. MUX VLAN contains a principal VLAN and subordinate VLANs. The principal VLAN and subordinate
VLANs cannot communicate.
B. MUX VLAN contains a principal VLAN and subordinate VLANs. The subordinate VLANs are classified
into subordinate separate VLANs and subordinate group VLANs. The interfaces in the subordinate
group VLAN can communicate with each other.
C. The principal VLAN and subordinate VLANs can communicate.
D. The interfaces of different subordinate separate VLANs can communicate with each other, but cannot
communicate with the interfaces in the principal VLAN.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 69
Which statement is true?
A. The principal VLAN must be configured before subordinate VLANs.
B. The MUX VLAN function takes effect without being enabled on an interface.
C. In MUX VLAN, a VLAN can function as both principal VLAN and subordinate VLAN.
D. The MUX VLAN can contain only one subordinate separate VLAN.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
Which statement about ARP proxy is false?
A. The ARP proxy, namely, the gateway, sends ARP request for the host. The MAC address in the ARP
request packet is the MAC address of the host.
B. The ARP proxy, namely, the gateway, sends ARP request for the host. The MAC address in the ARP
request packet is the MAC address of its own interface.
C. ARP proxy is also called promiscuous ARP or ARP hack.
D. The ARP proxy allows the hosts on the networks with the same network ID to communicate with each
other.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 71
Which statement is false?
A. The switch supports 1:1 VLAN mapping.
B. The switch does not support N:1 VLAN mapping on an interface.
C. The switch can perform VLAN mapping for double-tagged packets.
D. The switch can map the outer VLAN ID of packets to another VLAN ID.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 72
Which statement about VLAN is false?
A. A VLAN tag contains a 3-bit priority field. The priority value ranges from 0 to 7. It is used for
differentiated service forwarding.
B. The priority in the VLAN tag can be mapped to the internal priority of the switch, for differentiated
service forwarding.
C. The priority in the VLAN tag can be changed on the switch.
D. The priority in the VLAN tag cannot be changed.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 73
Which statements are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The routing ARP proxy allows the hosts on different physical networks of the same network segment to
communicate with each other.
B. The intra-VLAN ARP proxy allows isolated users on a VLAN to communicate with each other.
C. The inter-VLAN ARP proxy allows hosts on different VLANs to communicate with each other through
Layer 3.
D. The inter-VLAN ARP proxy function can\’t be enabled on the VLANIF interface of the super VLAN to
implement communication between sub-VLANs.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 74
Which statement about VLAN mapping is true?
A. The interface configured with VLAN mapping must be a hybrid interface.
B. The same VLANs on different interfaces cannot be mapped to different VLANs.
C. Different VLANs on the same interface can be mapped to the same VLAN.
D. Any types of interfaces can be configured with VLAN mapping.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 75
Which statement about port isolation configuration is false?
A. Port isolation can be used for Layer 2 isolation.
B. In port isolation mode, ports are isolated at Layer 2 but can communicate at Layer 3 by default.
C. Before the port isolation function takes effect on an interface, the port isolation function must be
enabled first.
D. The port-isolate enable command can run in the system view.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 76
Which VLAN assignment methods are supported by the Huawei S9300? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Assigning VLANs based on Layer 7 protocols
B. Assigning VLANs based on protocols
C. Assigning VLANs based on IP subnets
D. Assigning VLANs based on MAC addresses
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 77
Which statements about VLAN aggregation are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. “multiple” VLANs (broadcast domains) are on the same physical network; therefore, different VLANs
belong to the same subnet.
B. VLAN aggregation can save IP addresses.
C. Only the super VLAN requires an IP address, but sub-VLANs do not need.
D. The VLAN that is used to separate broadcast domains is called super VLAN.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 78
Which statement about VLAN mapping is false?
A. VLAN mapping is also called VLAN translation.
B. VLAN mapping can implement translation between C-VLAN IDs and S-VLAN IDs.
C. VLAN mapping can be configured.
D. VLAN mapping means that a VLAN tag is added to packets.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 79
Which statement about the VLAN on a Layer 2 switch is true?
A. The CFI in the VLAN tag specifies whether the priority in the VLAN tag is valid.
B. The VLAN tag is located in the Layer 2 header of a packet.
C. The CFI in the VLAN tag contains two bits.
D. A VLAN on the switch is a broadcast domain. The broadcast domains are separated.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 80
Which statements about VLAN configuration are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. You can enter the VLAN view at the same time you create a VLAN.
B. If you run undo vlan, the VLAN is invalid, but still exists. You do not need to create the VLAN when you
use it next time.
C. You can configure a character string of VLAN description. The length of the character string is not
limited.
D. If you do not enter the VLAN ID when running the display vlan command, information about all VLANs
will be displayed.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 81
Which statement about the following configuration is true?
port link-type hybrid
port hybrid pvidvlan 2
port hybrid untagged vlan 2
port hybrid tagged vlan 3
A. The default VLAN of the interface is VLAN 2.
B. The port hybrid tagged vlan 3 command configures the VLAN for a hybrid interface. Frames in the
VLAN then pass through the hybrid interface in untagged mode.
C. The port hybrid untagged vlan 2 command configures the VLAN for a hybrid interface.
Frames in the VLAN then pass through the hybrid interface in tagged mode.
D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
Which statements about VLAN mapping are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. When sending a frame from the local VLAN, the switch replaces the VLAN tag in the frame with
another VLAN tag.
B. When receiving a frame from another VLAN, the switch replaces the VLAN tag of the frame with the
local VLAN tag.
C. When an interface receives a frame from another VLAN, it does not replace the VLAN tag of the frame.
The interface replaces the VLAN tag of the frame with another VLAN tag only when it sends a frame.
D. The interface replaces the VLAN tag of only the frame received from another VLAN, but does not
change the VLAN tag of the frame it sends out.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 83
Which statements are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Port isolation is a mechanism that controls the access between switch interfaces.
B. Port isolation is an isolation mechanism at the physical layer.
C. Port isolation prevents the computers connected to different ports from accessing each other.
D. Port isolation can be configured based on VLANs.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 84
Which statements are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The sub-VLANs are configured in the super VLAN view.
B. VLANs 1 to 4094 can be configured as a super VLAN.
C. The aggregate-vlan command is used to configure the super VLAN.
D. A VLAN to be configured as a super VLAN cannot contain any interface.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 85
Which statements about VLAN allocation are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The IP subnet VLAN is used to send the packets from the specified network segment or IP address
over the specified VLAN.
B. The MAC address- or IP subnet-based VLAN is valid for only the untagged packets.
C. The protocol-based VLAN has a higher priority than the IP subnet-based VLAN.
D. The protocol-based VLAN indicates that service types on the network are bound to VLANs.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 86
Which is contained in the GVRP VLAN deregistration message?
A. Specified VLAN ID
B. Specified IP address
C. Specified MAC address
D. Known port number
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 87
On a switch running GVRP, each interface is considered as a participant. The participants can exchange
information.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 88
When the GVRP registration mode is FORBIDDEN, no VLAN can be created or registered on the
interface. In addition, which VLANs are deregistered on the interface?
A. All VLANs except VLAN 1
B. All VLANs except VLAN 4095
C. All VLANs
D. All VLANs except the VLAN specified by the user
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89
Which are contained in a GARP participant? (Select 2 Answers)
A. GARP Application
B. GARP Information Propagation (GIP)
C. GARP Information Declaration (GID)
D. Interface LLC
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 90
When the GVRP registration mode is FIXED, which statement is true?
A. VLANs can be manually created and registered on the interface, and can also be dynamically
registered and deregistered on the interface.
B. VLANs cannot be manually created and registered on the interface, but can be dynamically registered
and deregistered on the interface.
C. VLANs can be manually created and registered on the interface, but cannot be dynamically registered
or deregistered on the interface.
D. VLANs cannot be manually created and registered on the interface, and cannot be dynamically
registered or deregistered on the interface.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 91
Which statements about the relationship between GVRP and GARP are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. GVRP, GARP, and GMRP are the standards of the same type.
B. GVRP and GARP are defined by IEEE 802.1p.
C. GVRP is based on GARP, and is an application of GARP.
D. GVRP is a new definition of GARP.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 92
GARP involves various messages. Besides JoinIn message and Leave message, which are also the
GARP messages? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Notice
B. Empty
C. JoinEmpty
D. LeaveAll
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 93
As shown in the figure, port 1 of switch A is configured with the Fixed mode, and other ports are configured
with the Normal mode. The trunk interfaces allow all VLANs. Which VLANs are registered on port 1 of
switch C? (Select 3 Answers)
A. VLAN 1
B. VLAN 5 to VLAN 10
C. VLAN 15 to VLAN 20
D. VLAN 25 to VLAN 30
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 94
If 802.1x authentication is enabled on an interface, MAC address authentication (enabled by the mac-
authen enable command) and direct authentication (enabled by the direct-authen enable command)
cannot be enabled on the interface.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 95
Which are 802.1x authentication modes? (Select 2 Answers)
A. EAP relay mode
B. Proxy mode
C. EAP termination mode
D. Remote mode
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 96
Before configuring 802.1x services, you need to determine the configuration roadmap and prepare data.
Which are general steps in the configuration roadmap? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Configure a Tftp server.
B. Configure an AAA authentication template.
C. Configure a domain.
D. Configure 802.1x authentication.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 97
After detecting a user with a new MAC address, the switch initiates an EAP authentication request. If the
client does not respond and the MAC address bypass authentication is not configured, which statement is
false?
A. If the client does not respond after the number of authentication requests reaches a specified value, the
switch considers that the client software is not installed.
B. All permissions of the user are prohibited.
C. The user is allowed to access only the isolated zone.
D. Detection is initiated again after a period of time.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 98
The Layer 2 packet header in EAPoL packets is | DMAC | SMAC | TYPE | EAPOL | FCS |.
Which statements are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The destination address of packets is a specified MAC address.
B. The destination address of packets is a unicast MAC address.
C. EAPoL packets cannot be forwarded by switches.
D. The source MAC address of packets is the MAC address of the interface that sends packets.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 99
The dot1x command is used to enable 802.1x authentication globally or on an interface. Which statements
about the undo dot1x command are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. It is used to disable 802.1x authentication globally.
B. It will disconnect online users from the interface; therefore, use the command with caution.
C. It is used to disable 802.1x authentication on an interface.
D. Ensure that there are no online users before you run the undo dot1x command. Otherwise, running the
undo dot1x command fails.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 100
The dot1x authentication-method command is used to set the 802.1x authentication mode. Which is the
most secure authentication mode?
A. PAP
B. EAP
C. CHAP
D. EAP-TTLS
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 101
Which statements about guest VLAN configuration are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The guest VLAN must be created before you configure the guest VLAN.
B. The default VLAN of the interface cannot be configured as the guest VLAN.
C. Different interfaces can be configured with different guest VLANs.
D. An interface can be configured with up to eight guest VLANs.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 102
If you have run the dot1x port-method command with the port parameter specified (port-based 802.1x
authentication), the maximum number of users on an interface changes to 1. In this case, which
statements are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. You can run the dot1x max-user command to change the maximum number of access users.
B. You cannot run the dot1x max-user command to set the maximum number of access users.
C. You need to run the undo dot1x port-method command, and then set the maximum number of access
users.
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 103
What is the function of DHCP Offer messages?
A. DHCP Offer messages are broadcast by the client to detect the available server.
B. DHCP Offer messages are sent by the server to respond to the DHCP Discover messages sent by the
client. Certain configuration parameters are specified in the Offer messages.
C. DHCP Offer messages are sent by the client to apply to the server for configuration parameters,
configuration confirmation, or extension of the IP address lease.
D. DHCP Offer messages are sent from the server to the client. They contain configuration parameters
such as including the IP address.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 104
The option field in DHCP messages uses the CLV mode.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 105
Which encapsulation mode is used for DHCP messages?
A. TCP encapsulation
B. RTP encapsulation
C. UDP encapsulation
D. PPP encapsulation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 106
The option field in DHCP messages has a fixed length of four bytes.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 107
What is the function of the client IP address field in DHCP messages?
A. It is used by the client in bound, renew, or rebinding state to respond to ARP request packets.
B. It specifies the IP address allocated by the DHCP server to a client.
C. It specifies the next server address used in the BootStrap and is contained in DHCP Offer or DHCP
ACK messages.
D. It specifies the DHCP relay address.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 108
Which fields does the DHCP binding table contain? (Select 3 Answers)
A. MAC address
B. route table
C. IP address lease time
D. Interface and VLAN
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 109
An address needs to be allocated to a host connected to the network temporarily or a group of IP
addresses need to be allocated to the hosts that do not require permanent IP addresses. Which address
allocation mode does the DHCP server use?
A. Automatic allocation
B. Dynamic allocation
C. Manual allocation
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 110
What are the similarities of DHCP and BOOTP? (Select 2 Answers)
A. They work in client/server model.
B. They work in static address allocation mode.
C. They can dynamically obtain DNS addresses.
D. They use the same packet structure.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 111
Which messages are sent from the client to the server? (Select 3 Answers)
A. DHCP NAK
B. DHCP REQUEST
C. DHCP DISCOVER
D. DHCP RELEASE
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 112
When a client applies for an IP address through DHCP, which message is the unicast message?
A. DHCP OFFER
B. DHCP REQUEST
C. DHCP DISCOVER
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 113
What are the functions of DHCP snooping? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Defend against DoS attacks initiated by changing the CHADDR field
B. Defend against bogus DHCP server attacks
C. Defend against Packet Sniffer Mitigation
D. Defend against man-in-the-middle attacks and IP/MAC spoofing attacks
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 114
Which statements about DHCP snooping are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The DHCP snooping binding table contains dynamic binding entries and static binding entries.
B. DHCP snooping distinguishes the trusted interface and untrusted interfaces and discards DHCP Reply
messages from untrusted interfaces.
C. The static binding table is manually configured on the inbound interface and the aging time can also be
manually set.
D. When DHCP snooping is used at Layer 2, the interface information can be obtained for the binding
table even if the Option 82 function is not configured.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 115
When the DHCP relay receives a DHCP request message in which the giaddr (gateway IP address) field is
0, how does the DHCP relay process the DHCP request message?
A. The DHCP relay fills its IP address in the giaddr field and transmits the DHCP request message to the
DHCP server in unicast mode.
B. The DHCP relay fills its IP address in the giaddr field and transmits the DHCP request message in
broadcast mode.
C. The DHCP relay retains the value of the giaddr field and transmits the DHCP request message to the
DHCP server in unicast mode.
D. The DHCP relay retains the value of the giaddr field and transmits the DHCP request message in
broadcast mode.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 116
What is the sequence of applying for an IP address in DHCP?
1. The host sends a DHCP Request message to apply for an IP address.
2. The DHCP server replies with a DHCP Offer message.
3. The host sends a DHCP Discovery message to search for the DHCP server.
4. The DHCP server replies with a DHCP ACK message after receiving the DHCP Request message.
A. 1-2-3-4
B. 1-4-3-2
C. 3-2-1-4
D. 3-4-1-2
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 117
If the lease of a client IP address is not extended after 87.5% of the lease is reached, which message is
used by the client to extend the IP address lease?
A. DHCP Release broadcast message
B. DHCP Release unicast message
C. DHCP Request broadcast message
D. DHCP Request unicast message
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 118
If only some devices on a network run MPLS (MPLS domain is encapsulated in the IP packet header),
labels are generated only for direct routes of devices running MPLS. Labels are not generated for the
routes originated from other devices running IP protocols.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 119
The core of the MPLS technology is label switching.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 120
What about all outgoing labels in the label forwarding table of a device for the same route with the same
next hop?
A. They must be different.
B. They must be the same.
C. They may be the same.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 121
What about all outgoing labels in the label forwarding table of a device for different routes with the same
next hop?
A. They must be different.
B. They must be the same.
C. They may be the same.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 122
What is the POP action in MPLS?
A. The top label is removed from the MPLS label stack.
B. The top label is added to the MPLS label stack.
C. The top label is replaced with another value.
D. The top label is replaced with the label of another group.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 123
MPLS is a switching standard defined by the IETF. Which devices exist on the MPLS network? (Select 2
Answers)
A. LSR
B. LER
C. Label distribution router
D. Label transmit router
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 124
MPLS is a switching standard defined by the IETF. Which device adds or deletes labels?
A. Label distribution router
B. LER
C. LSR
D. Label transmit router
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 125
Which encapsulation mode is used for the MPLS protocol on an Ethernet network?
A. Packet mode
B. Frame mode
C. Transport mode
D. Channel mode
E. Pipe mode
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 126
Where is the MPLS label in a data frame?
A. Behind the Layer 3 header and before the Layer 2 header
B. Behind the Layer 2 header and before the Layer 3 header
C. In the Layer 3 header
D. Before the Layer 2 header
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 127
In which of the following modes can the Eudemon be working? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Routing mode
B. Transparent mode
C. Composite mode
D. Transfer mode
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 128
The firewall can be working in routing mode, transparent mode, or composite mode. The default mode is
the composite mode.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 129
Configuring a firewall to work in transparent mode does not change the network topology.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 130
The firewall does not use security rules to filter packets exchanged between interfaces in the same zone.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 131
Network address translation (NAT) translates only IP address information.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 132
IP unnumbered is to borrow an IP address from an interface. If an interface has multiple IP addresses, all
its IP addresses will be borrowed and the primary address will continue after these IP addresses are
borrowed.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 133
When two Eudemons are working in dual-system hot backup mode, their session tables are backed up in
real time.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 134
How many default zones does the Eudemon supporting multi-instance have?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 135
Which of the following is the priority value of the DMZ on the Eudemon?
A. 10
B. 50
C. 75
D. 85
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 136
Users can change the priorities of default zones on the firewall as required.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 137
What are the types of firewalls developed so far? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Packet filtering firewall
B. Proxy firewall
C. Anti-virus firewall
D. Stateful firewall
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 138
Which of the following firewalls is the most popular?
A. Packet filtering firewall
B. Stateful firewall
C. Proxy firewall
D. Anti-virus firewall
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 139
To enable an Eudemon in routing mode to work like a router, you need to assign IP addresses to
interfaces and enable dynamic or static routing protocols on the Eudemon.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 140
The Eudemon that is working in transparent mode detects processes data at Layer 2. Its interfaces are not
configured with IP addresses.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 141
When an Eudemon is working in composite mode, some of its interfaces are configured with IP addresses
(Layer 3 interfaces) and the other interfaces are not configured with IP addresses (Layer 2 interfaces). To
enable dual-system hot backup on an Eudemon, you can configure the Eudemon to work in composite
mode.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 142
Two Eudemons in dual-system hot backup can be working in Active-Active mode or Active- Standby mode.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 143
The Eudemon supports load balancing between multiple uplinks.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 144
How many user-defined security zones at most are configured on an Eudemon?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 145
Different virtual firewall instances on an Eudemon must be configured with the same security policy.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 146
Virtual firewalls on the Eudemon are not allowed to access each other by default unless a security policy is
specified.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 147
IP addresses added to the blacklist of the Eudemon cannot be deleted.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 148
You cannot set an aging time for the blacklist of the Eudemon.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 149
The Eudemon generates a blacklist upon detecting an attack.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 150
The TCP SYN flood attack usually occurs during the TCP handshake process. How many handshakes are
required to set up a TCP connection?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 151
The Eudemon can control traffic and connections based on IP addresses.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 152
What is the maximum number of security zones supported by the Eudemon?
A. 256
B. 128
C. 32
D. 16
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 153
Which of the following data traffic is incoming data traffic on the Eudemon? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Data traffic from a Trust zone to a demilitarized zone (DMZ)
B. Data traffic from an Untrust zone to a DMZ
C. Data traffic from a Local zone to a Trust zone
D. Data traffic from an Untrust zone to a Local zone
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 154
Security policies for the firewall are applied to interzones but not to interfaces.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 155
The multi-channel protocol is used to establish at least two channels (sessions) for communications or
services.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 156
ICMP packets are sent in a Smurf attack and UDP packets are sent in a Fraggle attack.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 157
The urgent pointer in the flag field of an IPv4 packet header is generally used for OOB data transmission.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 158
A firewall filters packets exchanged between zones but does not filter packets exchanged between
interfaces in the same zone.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 159
Two Eudemons in dual-system hot backup mode can be working in Active-Active mode or Active-Standby
mode.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 160
Two Eudemons in dual-system hot backup mode use Huawei Redundancy Protocol (HRP) to back up key
information (such as configuration commands and session status) between the active and standby
devices.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 161
After an interface on a firewall is added to a zone, the interface belongs to the zone.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 162
Which of the following statements about the security policies for the Eudemon are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. By default, a user in the Local zone can access other zones.
B. By default, a user in the Trust zone can access the DMZ.
C. By default, a user in the Untrust zone cannot access the Trust zone.
D. By default, a user in a zone of the firewall cannot access any other zone of the firewall.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 163
Which of the following statements about the zone priorities of the Eudemon are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The priority of the Local zone is 100.
B. The priority of the Trust zone is 80.
C. The priority of the Untrust zone is 5.
D. The priority of the DMZ is 50.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 164
Status detection is an advanced communication filtering mechanism. It checks the application layer
protocol and monitors the status of the connection-based application layer protocol. For all connections,
the status information about each connection is maintained by ASPF and is used to dynamically determine
whether to permit or deny data packets to firewalls.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 165
Which of the following statements about the firewall technology are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The network gateway of the application layer checks application-layer data carried in packets passing
through the gateway.
B. The network gateway for session status detection checks session information carried in packets only at
the session layer.
C. During packet filtering, the session status is checked and the whole data stream is analyzed.
D. Address proxy replaces IP addresses and port numbers of hosts within the network with the IP address
and port number of the proxy device or router.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 166
The NAT multi-instance function on the Eudemon independently maintains a NAT table for each instance
to provide address translation services for instances.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 167
The IPSec function on the Eudemon supports NAT traversal.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 168
The NAT function enabled on the Eudemon does not greatly affect system performance.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 169
The Eudemon does not support port mapping.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 170
The blacklist function on the firewall can filter packets based on destination IP addresses. A destination IP
address can be dynamically added to or deleted from the blacklist.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 171
In a Land attack, the source address and destination address of an SYN packet are both the IP address of
the attacked object or a loopback address.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 172
Which of the following attacks are prevented after an IP address and MAC address are bound on the
Eudemon? (Select 2 Answers)
A. IP address spoofing
B. MAC address spoofing
C. DoS attack
D. DDoS attack
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 173
Which of the following solutions effectively defend against ARP attacks? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Binding a MAC address and an IP address
B. Enabling the ARP attack protection function on a Huawei switching device
C. Adding network segments to different VLANs on a switch
D. Enabling IP packet filtering
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 174
Which of the following NAT functions are supported by the Eudemon? (Select 3 Answers)
A. NAT/PAT
B. IPv4 to IPv6 NAT
C. Bidirectional NAT
D. NAT server
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 175
Which of the following attacks can Eudemon defend against? (Select 3 Answers)
A. SYN-Flood
B. SQL inject
C. Port Scan
D. Ping-Death
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 176
Which of the following are performance parameters of the firewall? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Throughput
B. Maximum number of interface
C. Number of new connections per second
D. Process delay
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 177
By which can an IP-based advanced ACL filter packets? (Select 5 Answers)
A. Source IP address and its subnet mask
B. Destination IP address and its subnet mask
C. Protocol type
D. TCP or UDP port number
E. Priority of the data packet
F. Length of the data packet
Correct Answer: ABCDE
QUESTION 178
Which of the following statements about NAT are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. NAT is short for “network address translation”.
B. NAT, also called address proxy, is used for translation between private and public network addresses.
C. Hosts within the intranet can access the extranet without using NAT.
D. NAT can effectively resolve the problem of IP address shortage.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 179
Which of the following DDoS attacks can the Eudemon 1000E defend against? (Select 3 Answers)
A. SYN flood
B. UDP flood
C. ICMP flood
D. SQL flood
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 180
Which of the following high availability (HA) features are supported by the Eudemon 1000E? (Select 2
Answers)
A. Dual-system hot backup
B. Multi-system hot backup
C. Dual-system load balancing
D. Multi-system load balancing
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 181
Which of the following indicators are performance indicators of the Eudemon? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Throughput of large-sized or small-sized packets
B. Number of the interface
C. VPN performance
D. Process delay
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 182
To process fragmented service packets on an NAT-enabled firewall, which of the following functions needs
to be enabled?
A. Transparent fragment transmission
B. Fragment cache
C. Fragment reassembly
D. MTU check
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 183
In the scenario where packets are sent and received along different paths, which of the following functions
needs to be disabled on the firewall?
A. Status detection
B. Attack defense
C. Packet filtering
D. Status backup
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 184
Which of the following information do you check to directly identify a fault in the firewall if the data
transmission is interrupted?
A. Session table
B. Log
C. Global statistics about the firewall
D. Alarms
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 185
Assume that the traceroute test is used to detect the packet forwarding path and tracert packets have
passed through the firewall. Which of the following attack protection functions needs to be disabled to
normally display the tracert result?
A. ICMP-redirect
B. ICMP-unreachable
C. Tracert
D. Smurf
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 186
What is the recommended minimum delay for HRP preemption on the Eudemon?
A. 120s
B. 60s
C. 10s
D. 5s
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 187
Which of the following commands is used to display the detailed information about the Eudemon?
A. Display firewall statistic system
B. Display firewall session table raw both-direction
C. Display firewall session table verbose
D. Display firewall session table detail
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 188
Which of the following technologies does the Eudemon use to defense against Anti-DDoS attacks? (Select
5 Answers)
A. TCP agent
B. Source authentication and detection
C. Crc check
D. Fingerprint identification (characteristics detection)
E. Abnormal session detection
F. Traffic control
Correct Answer: ABDEF
QUESTION 189
What are the types of DDoS attacks? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Attacks by special packets
B. Scanning attack
C. Sniff attack
D. Application-layer attack
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 190
Which of the following attacks are DDoS attacks? (Select 4 Answers)
A. SYN flood
B. SYN/ACK flood
C. UDP flood
D. FTP attack
E. HTTP get flood
Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 191
QoS provides services of different qualities to meet various application requirements, including dedicated
bandwidth, decreased packet loss ratio, short packet transmission delay, and decreased del
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