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Question 1:

. Which of the following could lead to an unintentional loss of confidentiality? Choose the BEST answer.

A. Lack of employee awareness of a company\’s information security policy

B. Failure to comply with a company\’s information security policy

C. A momentary lapse of reason

D. Lack of security policy enforcement procedures

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

Lack of employee awareness of a company\’s information security policy could lead to an unintentional loss of confidentiality.

Question 2:

. Proper segregation of duties does not prohibit a quality control administrator from also being responsible for change control and problem management. True or false?

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

Proper segregation of duties does not prohibit a quality-control administrator from also being responsible for change control and problem management.

Question 3:

. After identifying potential security vulnerabilities, what should be the IS auditor\’s next

step?

A. To evaluate potential countermeasures and compensatory controls

B. To implement effective countermeasures and compensatory controls

C. To perform a business impact analysis of the threats that would exploit the vulnerabilities

D. To immediately advise senior management of the findings

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

After identifying potential security vulnerabilities, the IS auditor\’s next step is to perform a business impact analysis of the threats that would exploit the vulnerabilities.

Question 4:

The extent to which data will be collected during an IS audit should be determined based on the:

A. availability of critical and required information.

B. auditor\’s familiarity with the circumstances.

C. auditee\’s ability to find relevant evidence.

D. purpose and scope of the audit being done.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

Explanation: The extent to which data will be collected during an IS audit should be related directly to the scope and purpose of the audit. An audit with a narrow purpose and scope would result most likely in less data collection, than an audit with a wider purpose and scope. The scope of an IS audit should not be constrained by the ease of obtaining the information or by the auditor\’s familiarity with the area being audited. Collecting all the required evidence is a required element of an IS audit, and thescope of the audit should not be limited by the auditee\’s ability to find relevant evidence.

Question 5:

What is the lowest level of the IT governance maturity model where an IT balanced scorecard exists?

A. Repeatable but Intuitive

B. Defined

C. Managed and Measurable

D. Optimized

Correct Answer: B

Explanation

Explanation:

Defined (level 3) is the lowest level at which an IT balanced scorecard is defined.

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Question 6:

To gain an understanding of the effectiveness of an organization\’s planning and management of investments in IT assets, an IS auditor should review the:

A. enterprise data model.

B. IT balanced scorecard (BSC).

C. IT organizational structure.

D. historical financial statements.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation

Explanation: The IT balanced scorecard (BSC) is a tool that provides the bridge between IT objectives and business objectives by supplementing the traditional financial evaluation with measures to evaluate customer satisfaction, internal processes and the abilityto innovate. An enterprise data model is a document defining the data structure of an organization and how data interrelate. It is useful, but it does not provide information on investments. The IT organizational structure provides an overview of the functional and reporting relationships in an IT entity. Historical financial statements do not provide information about planning and lack sufficient detail to enable one to fully understand management\’s activities regarding IT assets. Past costs do not necessarily reflect value, and assets such as data are not represented on the books of accounts.

Question 7:

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when implementing a risk management program?

A. An understanding of the organization\’s threat, vulnerability and risk profile

B. An understanding of the risk exposures and the potential consequences of compromise

C. A determination of risk management priorities based on potential consequences

D. A risk mitigation strategy sufficient to keep risk consequences at an acceptable level

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

Explanation: Implementing risk management, as one of the outcomes of effective information security governance, would require a collective understanding of the organization\’s threat, vulnerability and risk profile as a first step. Based on this, an understanding of risk exposure and potential consequences of compromise could be determined. Risk management priorities based on potential consequences could then be developed. This would provide a basis for the formulation of strategies for risk mitigation sufficient to keep the consequences from risk at an acceptable level.

Question 8:

The IT balanced scorecard is a business governance tool intended to monitor IT performance evaluation indicators other than:

A. financial results.

B. customer satisfaction.

C. internal process efficiency.

D. innovation capacity.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

Explanation: Financial results have traditionally been the sole overall performance metric. The IT balanced scorecard (BSC) is an IT business governance tool aimed at monitoring IT performance evaluation indicators other than financial results. The IT BSC considers other key success factors, such as customer satisfaction, innovation capacity and processing.

Question 9:

While evaluating software development practices in an organization, an IS auditor notes that the quality assurance (QA) function reports to project management. The MOST important concern for an IS auditor is the:

A. effectiveness of the QA function because it should interact between project management and user management

B. efficiency of the QA function because it should interact with the project implementation team.

C. effectiveness of the project manager because the project manager should interact with the QA function.

D. efficiency of the project manager because the QA function will need to communicate with the project implementation team.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: To be effective the quality assurance (QA) function should be independent of project management. The QA function should never interact with the project implementation team since this can impact effectiveness. The project manager does not interact with the QA function, which should not impact the effectiveness of the project manager. The QA function does not

interact with the project implementation team, which should not impact the efficiency of the project manager.

Question 10:

During a postimplementation review of an enterprise resource management system, an IS auditor would MOST likely:

A. review access control configuration.

B. evaluate interface testing.

C. review detailed design documentation.

D. evaluate system testing.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

Reviewing access control configuration would be the first task performed to determine

whether security has been appropriately mapped in the system. Since a

postimplementation review is done after user acceptance testing and actual

implementation, onewould not engage in interface testing or detailed design documentation. Evaluating

interface testing would be part of the implementation process.

The issue of reviewing detailed design documentation is not generally relevant to an

enterprise resource management system, since these are usually vendor packages with

user manuals. System testing should be performed before final user signoff.

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