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Question 1:

. What topology provides the greatest redundancy of routes and the greatest network fault tolerance?

A. A star network topology

B. A mesh network topology with packet forwarding enabled at each host

C. A bus network topology

D. A ring network topology

Correct Answer: B


A mesh network topology provides a point-to-point link between every network host. If each host is configured to route and forward communication, this topology provides the greatest redundancy of routes and the greatest network fault tolerance.

Question 2:

. In order to properly protect against unauthorized disclosure of sensitive data, how should hard disks be sanitized?

A. The data should be deleted and overwritten with binary 0s.

B. The data should be demagnetized.

C. The data should be low-level formatted.

D. The data should be deleted.

Correct Answer: B


To properly protect against unauthorized disclosure of sensitive data, hard disks

should be demagnetized before disposal or release.

Question 3:

. Which of the following fire-suppression methods is considered to be the most environmentally friendly?

A. Halon gas

B. Deluge sprinklers

C. Dry-pipe sprinklers

D. Wet-pipe sprinklers

Correct Answer: C


Although many methods of fire suppression exist, dry-pipe sprinklers are considered to be the most environmentally friendly.

Question 4:

. What should regression testing use to obtain accurate conclusions regarding the effects of changes or corrections to a program, and ensuring that those changes and corrections have not introduced new errors?

A. Contrived data

B. Independently created data

C. Live data

D. Data from previous tests

Correct Answer: D

Regression testing should use data from previous tests to obtain accurate conclusions regarding the effects of changes or corrections to a program, and ensuring that those changes and corrections have not introduced new errors.

Question 5:

Which of the following would be the BEST population to take a sample from when testing program changes?

A. Test library listings

B. Source program listings

C. Program change requests

D. Production library listings

Correct Answer: D


Explanation: The best source from which to draw any sample or test of system information is the automated system. The production libraries represent executables that are approved and authorized to process organizational datA. Source program listings would be timeintensive. Program change requests are the documents used to initiate change; there is no guarantee

that the request has been completed for all changes. Test library listings do not represent the approved and authorized executables.

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Question 6:

During an audit, an IS auditor notices that the IT department of a medium-sized organization has no separate risk management function, and the organization\’s operational risk documentation only contains a few broadly described IT risks. What is

the MOST appropriate recommendation in this situation?

A. Create an IT risk management department and establish an IT risk framework with the aid of external risk management experts.

B. Use common industry standard aids to divide the existing risk documentation into several individual risks which will be easier to handle.

C. No recommendation is necessary since the current approach is appropriate for a medium-sized organization.

D. Establish regular IT risk management meetings to identify and assess risks, and create a mitigation plan as input to the organization\’s risk management.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Establishing regular meetings is the best way to identify and assess risks in a medium-sized organization, to address responsibilities to the respective management and to keep the risk list and mitigation plans up to date. A medium-sized organizationwould normally not have a separate IT risk management department. Moreover, the risks are usually manageable enough so that external help would not be needed. While common risks may be covered by common industry standards, they cannot address the specific situation of an organization. Individual risks will not be discovered without a detailed assessment from within the organization. Splitting the one risk position into several is not sufficient.

Question 7:

While evaluating software development practices in an organization, an IS auditor notes that the quality assurance (QA) function reports to project management. The MOST important concern for an IS auditor is the:

A. effectiveness of the QA function because it should interact between project management and user management

B. efficiency of the QA function because it should interact with the project implementation team.

C. effectiveness of the project manager because the project manager should interact with the QA function.

D. efficiency of the project manager because the QA function will need to communicate with the project implementation team.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: To be effective the quality assurance (QA) function should be independent of project management. The QA function should never interact with the project implementation team since this can impact effectiveness. The project manager does not interact with the QA function, which should not impact the effectiveness of the project manager. The QA function does not

interact with the project implementation team, which should not impact the efficiency of the project manager.

Question 8:

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose for conducting parallel testing?

A. To determine if the system is cost-effective

B. To enable comprehensive unit and system testing

C. To highlight errors in the program interfaces with files

D. To ensure the new system meets user requirements

Correct Answer: D


The purpose of parallel testing is to ensure that the implementation of a new system will

meet user requirements. Parallel testing may show that the old system is, in fact, better than the new system, but this is not the primary reason. Unit and system testing are completed before parallel testing. Program interfaces with files are tested for errors

during system testing.

Question 9:

When evaluating the controls of an EDI application, an IS auditor should PRIMARILY be concerned with the risk of:

A. excessive transaction turnaround time.

B. application interface failure.

C. improper transaction authorization.

D. nonvalidated batch totals.

Correct Answer: C

Foremost among the risks associated with electronic data interchange (EDI) is improper transaction authorization. Since the interaction with the parties is electronic, there is no inherent authentication. The other choices, although risks, are not assignificant.

Question 10:

Vendors have released patches fixing security flaws in their software. Which of the following should an IS auditor recommend in this situation?

A. Assess the impact of patches prior to installation.

B. Ask the vendors for a new software version with all fixes included.

C. install the security patch immediately.

D. Decline to deal with these vendors in the future.

Correct Answer: A


The effect of installing the patch should be immediately evaluated and installation should occur based on the results of the evaluation. To install the patch without knowing what it might affect could easily cause problems. New software versions withall fixes included are not always available and a full installation could be time consuming. Declining to deal with vendors does not take care of the flaw.

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