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Question 1:

An access system that grants users only those rights necessary for them to perform their work is operating on which security principle?

A. Discretionary Access

B. Least Privilege

C. Mandatory Access

D. Separation of Duties

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Source: TIPTON, Hal, (ISC)2, Introduction to the CISSP Exam presentation.

Question 2:

Which of the following best ensures accountability of users for the actions taken within a system or domain?

A. Identification

B. Authentication

C. Authorization

D. Credentials

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The only way to ensure accountability is if the subject is uniquely identified and authenticated. Identification alone does not provide proof the user is who they claim to be. After showing proper credentials, a user is authorized access to resources. HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, Chapter 4: Access Control (page 126).

Question 3:

Which of the following statements pertaining to access control is false?

A. Users should only access data on a need-to-know basis.

B. If access is not explicitly denied, it should be implicitly allowed.

C. Access rights should be granted based on the level of trust a company has on a subject.

D. Roles can be an efficient way to assign rights to a type of user who performs certain tasks.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Access control mechanisms should default to no access to provide the necessary level of security and ensure that no security holes go unnoticed. If access is not explicitly allowed, it should be implicitly denied. Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw- Hill/Osborne, 2002, Chapter 4: Access Control (page 143).

Question 4:

Which of the following testing method examines internal structure or working of an application?

A. White-box testing

B. Parallel Test

C. Regression Testing

D. Pilot Testing

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: White-box testing (also known as clear box testing, glass box testing, transparent box testing, and structural testing) is a method of testing software that tests internal structures or workings of an application, as opposed to its

functionality (i.e. black- box testing). In white-box testing an internal perspective of the system, as well as programming skills, are used to design test cases. The tester chooses inputs to exercise paths through the code and determine the

appropriate outputs. This is analogous to testing nodes in a circuit, e.g. in-circuit testing (ICT).

White-box testing can be applied at the unit, integration and system levels of the software testing process. Although traditional testers tended to think of white-box testing as being done at the unit level, it is used for integration and system

testing more frequently today. It can test paths within a unit, paths between units during integration, and between subsystems during a system璴evel test. Though this method of test design can uncover many errors or problems, it has the

potential to miss unimplemented parts of the specification or missing requirements.

For your exam you should know the information below:

Alpha and Beta Testing – An alpha version is early version is an early version of the application system submitted to the internal user for testing. The alpha version may not contain all the features planned for the final version. Typically

software goes to two stages testing before it consider finished.The first stage is called alpha testing is often performed only by the user within the organization developing the software. The second stage is called beta testing, a form of user

acceptance testing, generally involves a limited number of external users. Beta testing is the last stage of testing, and normally involves real world exposure, sending the beta version of the product to independent beta test sites or offering it

free to interested user.

Pilot Testing – A preliminary test that focuses on specific and predefined aspect of a system. It is not meant to replace other testing methods, but rather to provide a limited evaluation of the system. Proof of concept are early pilot tests ?

usually over interim platform and with only basic functionalities.

White box testing – Assess the effectiveness of a software program logic. Specifically, test data are used in determining procedural accuracy or conditions of a program\’s specific logic path. However testing all possible logical path in large

information system is not feasible and would be cost prohibitive, and therefore is used on selective basis only.

Black Box Testing – An integrity based form of testing associated with testing components of an information system\’s “functional” operating effectiveness without regards to any specific internal program structure. Applicable to integration and

user acceptance testing.

Function/validation testing ?It is similar to system testing but it is often used to test the functionality of the system against the detailed requirements to ensure that the software that has been built is traceable to customer requirements.

Regression Testing – The process of rerunning a portion of a test scenario or test plan to ensure that changes or corrections have not introduced new errors. The data used in regression testing should be same as original data.

Parallel Testing – This is the process of feeding test data into two systems ?the modified system and an alternative system and comparing the result.

Sociability Testing – The purpose of these tests is to confirm that new or modified system can operate in its target environment without adversely impacting existing system. This should cover not only platform that will perform primary

application processing and interface with other system but , in a client server and web development, changes to the desktop environment. Multiple application may run on the users desktop, potentially simultaneously , so it is important to test

the impact of installing new dynamic link libraries (DLLs), making operating system registry or configuration file modification, and possibly extra memory utilization.

The following answers are incorrect:

Parallel Testing – This is the process of feeding test data into two systems ?the modified system and an alternative system and comparing the result.

usually over interim platform and with only basic functionalities

The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:

CISA review manual 2014 Page number 167

Official ISC2 guide to CISSP CBK 3rd Edition Page number 176

Question 5:

What is the BEST definition of SQL injection.

A. SQL injection is a database problem.

B. SQL injection is a web Server problem.

C. SQL injection is a windows and Linux website problem that could be corrected by applying a website vendors patch.

D. SQL injection is an input validation problem.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: SQL injection is execution of unexpected SQL in the database as a result of unsanitized user input being accepted and used in the application code to form the SQL statement.It is a coding problem which affects inhouse, open

source and commercial software.

The following answers are incorrect:

SQL injection is a database problem.

SQL injection is a web Server problem.

SQL injection is a windows and Linux website problem that could be corrected by applying a website vendors patch.

The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:

https://security.berkeley.edu/sites/default/files/uploads/SQLi_Prevention.pdf (page 9 and

10)

CISSP Practice Test CISSP Study Guide CISSP Exam Questions

Question 6:

What are cognitive passwords?

A. Passwords that can be used only once.

B. Fact or opinion-based information used to verify an individual\’s identity.

C. Password generators that use a challenge response scheme.

D. Passphrases.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Cognitive passwords are fact or opinion-based information used to verify an individual\’s identity. Passwords that can be used only once are one-time or dynamic passwords. Password generators that use a challenge response

scheme refer to token devices.

A passphrase is a sequence of characters that is longer than a password and is transformed into a virtual password.

Source: WALLHOFF, John, CISSP Summary 2002, April 2002, CBK#1 Access Control System and Methodology (page 2), /Documents/CISSP_Summary_2002/index.html.

Question 7:

Which one of the following authentication mechanisms creates a problem for mobile users?

A. Mechanisms based on IP addresses

B. Mechanism with reusable passwords

C. One-time password mechanism.

D. Challenge response mechanism.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Anything based on a fixed IP address would be a problem for mobile users because their location and its associated IP address can change from one time to the next. Many providers will assign a new IP every time the device

would be restarted. For example an insurance adjuster using a laptop to file claims online. He goes to a different client each time and the address changes every time he connects to the ISP.

NOTE FROM CLEMENT:

The term MOBILE in this case is synonymous with Road Warriors where a user is constantly traveling and changing location. With smartphone today that may not be an issue but it would be an issue for laptops or WIFI tablets. Within a carrier

network the IP will tend to be the same and would change rarely. So this question is more applicable to devices that are not cellular devices but in some cases this issue could affect cellular devices as well.

The following answers are incorrect:

Mechanism with reusable password. This is incorrect because reusable password mechanism would not present a problem for mobile users. They are the least secure and change only at specific interval one-time password mechanism. This

is incorrect because a one-time password mechanism would not present a problem for mobile users. Many are based on a clock and not on the IP address of the user Challenge response mechanism. This is incorrect because challenge

response mechanism would not present a problem for mobile users.

Question 8:

In non-discretionary access control using Role Based Access Control (RBAC), a central authority determines what subjects can have access to certain objects based on the organizational security policy. The access controls may be based on:

A. The societies role in the organization

B. The individual\’s role in the organization

C. The group-dynamics as they relate to the individual\’s role in the organization

D. The group-dynamics as they relate to the master-slave role in the organization

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: In Non-Discretionary Access Control, when Role Based Access Control is being used, a central authority determines what subjects can have access to certain objects based on the organizational security policy. The access

controls may be based on the individual\’s role in the organization.

Reference(S) used for this question:

KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, Page 33

Question 9:

External consistency ensures that the data stored in the database is:

A. in-consistent with the real world.

B. remains consistant when sent from one system to another.

C. consistent with the logical world.

D. consistent with the real world.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: External consistency ensures that the data stored in the database is consistent with the real world.

Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, page 33

Question 10:

Layer 2 of the OSI model has two sublayers. What are those sublayers, and what are two IEEE standards that describe technologies at that layer?

A. LCL and MAC; IEEE 8022 and 8023

B. LCL and MAC; IEEE 8021 and 8023

C. Network and MAC; IEEE 8021 and 8023

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: The data link layer, or Layer 2, of the OSI model is responsible for adding a header and a trailer to a packet to prepare the packet for the local area network or wide area network technology binary format for proper line

transmission.

Layer 2 is divided into two functional sublayers.

The upper sublayer is the Logical Link Control (LLC) and is defined in the IEEE 8022 specification. It communicates with the network layer, which is immediately above the data link layer.

Below the LLC is the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer, which specifies the interface with the protocol requirements of the physical layer.

Thus, the specification for this layer depends on the technology of the physical layer. The IEEE MAC specification for Ethernet is 8023, Token Ring is 8025, wireless LAN is 80211, and so on. When you see a reference to an IEEE standard,

such as 80211 or 80216, it refers to the protocol working at the MAC sublayer of the data link layer of the protocol stack.

The following answers are incorrect:

LCL and MAC; IEEE 8022 and 8023 is incorrect because LCL is a distracter. The correct acronym for the upper sublayer of the data link layer is LLC. It stands for the Logical Link Control. By providing multiplexing and flow control

mechanisms, the LLC enables the coexistence of network protocols within a multipoint network and their transportation over the same network media.

LCL and MAC; IEEE 8021 and 8023 is incorrect because LCL is a distracter. The sublayers of the data link layer are the Logical Link Control (LLC) and the Media Access Control (MAC). Furthermore, the LLC is defined in the IEEE 8022

specification, not 8021 The IEEE 8021 specifications are concerned with protocol layers above the MAC and LLC layers. It addresses LAN/MAN architecture, network management, internetworking between LANs and WANs, and link security,

etc.

Network and MAC; IEEE 8021 and 8023 is incorrect because network is not a sublayer of the data link layer. The sublayers of the data link layer are the Logical Link Control (LLC) and the Media Access Control (MAC). The LLC sits between

the network layer (the layer immediately above the data link layer) and the MAC sublayer. Also, the LLC is defined in the IEEE 8022 specification,not IEEE 8021 As just explained, 8021 standards address areas of LAN/MAN architecture,

network management, internetworking between LANs and WANs, and link security.The IEEE 8021 group\’s four active task groups are Internetworking, Security, Audio/Video Bridging, and Data Center Bridging.

The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/OSI_model

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